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mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
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Hey!
Let $V$ be the real vector space $\mathbb{R}[X]$ and $M \subset \mathbb{R}$ a set with $d$ elements. Let $$U_1 := \{ f \in \mathbb{R}[X] | \forall m \in M : f(m) = 0\}, \ \ U_2 := \{ f \in \mathbb{R}[X] \mid \deg(f) \leq d − 1\}$$ be two vector spaces of $V$. Let $\Phi: V\rightarrow Ab(M,\mathbb{R})$ be a linear mapping that is defined by $\Phi (f)(m):=f(m)$.
I want to show that $\Phi\mid_{U_2}:U_2\rightarrow \text{Ab}(M,\mathbb{R})$ is a vector space isomorphism.
So, we have to show that $\Phi$ is injective ans surjective.
To show that the mapping is injective, we take to elements of $U_2$, say $f,g\in U_2$.
For them it holds that $f(m)=g(m)=0$ for every $m\in M$.
Suppose that $\Phi (f)=\Phi (g)$ then it follows that $f(m)=g(m)$.
Is this correct? So, $\Phi$ is injective, right? (Wondering)
How can we show that the mapping is surjective?
Let $V$ be the real vector space $\mathbb{R}[X]$ and $M \subset \mathbb{R}$ a set with $d$ elements. Let $$U_1 := \{ f \in \mathbb{R}[X] | \forall m \in M : f(m) = 0\}, \ \ U_2 := \{ f \in \mathbb{R}[X] \mid \deg(f) \leq d − 1\}$$ be two vector spaces of $V$. Let $\Phi: V\rightarrow Ab(M,\mathbb{R})$ be a linear mapping that is defined by $\Phi (f)(m):=f(m)$.
I want to show that $\Phi\mid_{U_2}:U_2\rightarrow \text{Ab}(M,\mathbb{R})$ is a vector space isomorphism.
So, we have to show that $\Phi$ is injective ans surjective.
To show that the mapping is injective, we take to elements of $U_2$, say $f,g\in U_2$.
For them it holds that $f(m)=g(m)=0$ for every $m\in M$.
Suppose that $\Phi (f)=\Phi (g)$ then it follows that $f(m)=g(m)$.
Is this correct? So, $\Phi$ is injective, right? (Wondering)
How can we show that the mapping is surjective?
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