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autobot.d
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Hello,
I am trying to prove that The Completeness Axiom is equivalent to the Heine Borel Theory (open finite cover).
I was wondering when going from Completeness Axiom to Heine Borel, is ok to assume that the set is closed?
I know the heine borel assumes that it is closed, but Completeness does not. I was just wondering if I had to prove that Completeness also asserted that the set was closed.
Thanks for the help.
I am trying to prove that The Completeness Axiom is equivalent to the Heine Borel Theory (open finite cover).
I was wondering when going from Completeness Axiom to Heine Borel, is ok to assume that the set is closed?
I know the heine borel assumes that it is closed, but Completeness does not. I was just wondering if I had to prove that Completeness also asserted that the set was closed.
Thanks for the help.