- #1
lfdahl
Gold Member
MHB
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Is the definite integral
$$\int_{1}^{\infty}\left(\arcsin \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)-\frac{1}{x} \right)\,dx$$
of indeterminate form or not? Prove your statement.
$$\int_{1}^{\infty}\left(\arcsin \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)-\frac{1}{x} \right)\,dx$$
of indeterminate form or not? Prove your statement.