- #1
Delong66
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Suppose you have the map $$\pi : \mathbb{R}^{n+1}-\{0\} \longrightarrow \mathbb{P}^n$$.
I need to prove that the map is differentiable.
But this map is a chart of $$\mathbb{P}^n$$ so by definition is differentiable?
MENTOR NOTE: fixed Latex mistakes double $ signs and backslashes needed for math
I need to prove that the map is differentiable.
But this map is a chart of $$\mathbb{P}^n$$ so by definition is differentiable?
MENTOR NOTE: fixed Latex mistakes double $ signs and backslashes needed for math
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