- #1
jmfrank63
- 2
- 0
- TL;DR Summary
- The original publication was clearly invalid, not just inaccurate. Why is this of no concern?
Our current model of the atom is still based on the original publication of Rutherford. However, this publication is clearly invalid. I am not talking about inaccurate. I am using the word invalid, and that is for a reason. People have often criticized historic publications, one example is Euclid's equilateral triangle. Yet, Euclid's proof might be inaccurate, but it is certainly not invalid. But Rutherford's paper is not simply inaccurate, it is actually invalid.
Here is why:
In his original publication, you can read early this sentence:
If you want to verify the quote, here is a replica of the original article, page 671 first paragraph:
This is a clearly invalid assumption, such an object can never exist, for it is clearly violating Gauss's Law. Here I am talking to physicists, so I do not give a detailed explanation on how the law works, I just will point out the uniform sphere surrounding the centre will prevent any field lines to leave to the outside. I am curious if, in a physics forum, this needs further explanation or this will already make clear that the assumption is invalid. I am happy to give an in-depth explanation if asked for.
Now, given the invalid assumption, you can show about anything. While the mathematics in the paper is impressive, it does not help, based on a wrong assumption it is worthless. I also think, the peer review should have caught this.
Why is this not of any concern, and why is this not discussed? How does quantum mechanics fix this? I've never heard of quantum mechanics replacing classical mechanics, only of extending it. So if it extends, how does it make an invalid object valid?
Here is why:
In his original publication, you can read early this sentence:
Consider an atom which contains a charge ±Ne at its centre surrounded by a sphere of electrification containing a charge ±Ne [N.B. in the original publication, the second plus/minus sign is inverted to be a minus/plus sign] supposed uniformly distributed throughout a sphere of radius R.
If you want to verify the quote, here is a replica of the original article, page 671 first paragraph:
This is a clearly invalid assumption, such an object can never exist, for it is clearly violating Gauss's Law. Here I am talking to physicists, so I do not give a detailed explanation on how the law works, I just will point out the uniform sphere surrounding the centre will prevent any field lines to leave to the outside. I am curious if, in a physics forum, this needs further explanation or this will already make clear that the assumption is invalid. I am happy to give an in-depth explanation if asked for.
Now, given the invalid assumption, you can show about anything. While the mathematics in the paper is impressive, it does not help, based on a wrong assumption it is worthless. I also think, the peer review should have caught this.
Why is this not of any concern, and why is this not discussed? How does quantum mechanics fix this? I've never heard of quantum mechanics replacing classical mechanics, only of extending it. So if it extends, how does it make an invalid object valid?