Is the Summation of the Binomial Theorem Equal to Zero?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the Binomial Theorem, specifically the expression (x+y)^n and its summation form. When substituting x=1 and y=-1, the resulting sum, ∑_{k=0}^{n}{n choose k}(-1)^k, leads to the conclusion that it equals zero for all n except when n=0. In the case of n=0, the expression evaluates to 1, as 0^0 is conventionally defined as 1. The conversation highlights the nuances of binomial coefficients when n=0 and the implications for the theorem's summation. Overall, the summation of the Binomial Theorem equals zero for n greater than zero.
EngWiPy
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Hello,

All we know the Binomial Theorm which may be stated mathematically as:

\left(x+y\right)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n{n\choose k}y^k\,x^{n-k}

Now suppose that we have the following mathematical expression:

\sum_{k=0}^{n}{n\choose k}\,(-1)^k

if we substitute x=1 and y=-1 in the first equation we get the second. Is that mean the second equation is essentially zero, since (1-1)^n=0??

Regards
 
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Yes, indeed, unless n = 0.
 
Moo Of Doom said:
Yes, indeed, unless n = 0.

Why? In the case that n = 0, what will be the answer? 1?
 
00 is not well-defined and neither is 0Ck for any k <> 0 (although there are generalizations that extend the domain beyond the definition using just factorials).
 
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