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Hello,
All we know the Binomial Theorm which may be stated mathematically as:
\left(x+y\right)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n{n\choose k}y^k\,x^{n-k}
Now suppose that we have the following mathematical expression:
\sum_{k=0}^{n}{n\choose k}\,(-1)^k
if we substitute x=1 and y=-1 in the first equation we get the second. Is that mean the second equation is essentially zero, since (1-1)^n=0??
Regards
All we know the Binomial Theorm which may be stated mathematically as:
\left(x+y\right)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n{n\choose k}y^k\,x^{n-k}
Now suppose that we have the following mathematical expression:
\sum_{k=0}^{n}{n\choose k}\,(-1)^k
if we substitute x=1 and y=-1 in the first equation we get the second. Is that mean the second equation is essentially zero, since (1-1)^n=0??
Regards