Is There a Faster Way to Prove Smoothness on Manifolds?

  • I
  • Thread starter JonnyG
  • Start date
In summary, a function ##F: M \rightarrow N## between smooth manifolds is considered smooth if, for any point ##p## on ##M##, there exist smooth charts ##(U, \phi)## containing ##p## and ##(V, \psi)## containing ##F(p)##, such that the composition ##\psi \circ F \circ \phi^{-1}## is a smooth map from ##\phi(U \cap F^{-1}(V))## to ##\mathbb{R}^n##. This can be used to show that a function is smooth without explicitly constructing a bijection between manifolds and verifying the smoothness of its coordinate representation. The inverse function theorem
  • #1
JonnyG
234
45
So if ##M, N## are smooth manifolds then ##F: M \rightarrow N## is smooth if given ##p \in M##, there is a smooth chart ##(U, \phi)## containing ##p## and a smooth chart ##(V, \psi)## containing ##F(p)## such that ##\psi \circ F \circ \phi^{-1}: \phi(U \cap F^{-1}(V)) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n## is smooth.

If I wanted to prove that a given function was smooth, are there any faster ways other than showing that its coordinate representation is smooth? For example, I just did a question where I had to show that ##T(M \times N)## is diffeomorphic to ##T(M) \times T(N)##. I had to explicitly construct a bijection between the two manifolds then show that the coordinate representations of ##F## and ##F^{-1}## were smooth. This was a big pain. I wish there was a theorem I could have appealed to instead.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Inverse function theorem?
Sections of the tangent bundle?

It really depends on what you have seen already.
 
  • #3
Thanks, micromass. I haven't learned the inverse function theorem on manifolds yet, but I suppose it's the usual inverse function theorem applied to the coordinate representation of the map I'm interested in. I am still early in my study of smooth manifolds - I'll be more patient.
 

FAQ: Is There a Faster Way to Prove Smoothness on Manifolds?

1. What is the definition of smoothness in terms of mathematics?

Smoothness is a mathematical concept that refers to the property of a function being continuously differentiable. This means that the function has derivatives of all orders, meaning it is infinitely differentiable.

2. How is smoothness proven in mathematics?

In mathematics, smoothness is proven by showing that a function has continuous derivatives of all orders. This can be done through various methods, such as using the definition of differentiability or using the Mean Value Theorem.

3. What is a simpler way to prove smoothness?

A simpler way to prove smoothness is by using the concept of analytic functions. An analytic function is infinitely differentiable and can be expressed as a power series. Therefore, if a function can be represented as a power series, it is automatically proven to be smooth.

4. Can smoothness be proven for all types of functions?

No, smoothness can only be proven for functions that are defined on a continuous domain and have continuous derivatives of all orders. Functions that are not continuous or have discontinuous derivatives cannot be proven to be smooth.

5. Why is proving smoothness important in mathematics?

Proving smoothness is important in mathematics because it allows us to understand the behavior of a function and make predictions about its values. It also helps us to solve problems and equations involving the function, as well as analyze its rate of change and curvature.

Similar threads

Replies
20
Views
3K
Replies
36
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
841
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
1K
Replies
10
Views
1K
Replies
21
Views
1K
Back
Top