Surely it doesn't say "(0; 0; 2) is linearly independent". For one thing that doesn't make sense. A single vector is not "dependent" or "independent". It must be dependent or independent of other vectors. You can also say that a set or vectors is "independent" (no vector is dependent on any of the others in the set) or "dependent" (at least one of the in the set is dependent on others).
In any case, you could answer the question directly from the definition: show that, for any numbers, x, y, and z, there are numbers a, b, c, and d, such that, a(1; 1; 0)+ b(0;0;2)+ c(0;0;1)+ d(1;2;3)= (a+ d; a+ 2; 2b+ c+ 3d)= (x, y, z). That is, show that the set of equations, a+ d= x, a+ 2b= y, 2b+ c+ 3d= z can be solved for any values of x, y, and z.
It is true in any vector space of dimension n, that a set of n independent vectors must span the space. So it is sufficient to find a subset of 3 independent vectors to show that these span the space.
For example, a(1;1;0)+ b(0;0;2)+ c(0;0;1)= (a; a+ b; c)= (0, 0 ,0) then we must have a= 0, a+ b= 0, and c= 0. Since b= 0, a+ b= a= 0. a= b= c= 0 is the only solution so that subset is independent so spans the space so the original set spans the space.
{(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3
{(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3