- #1
Physicist97
- 31
- 4
Hello! What I'm wondering is if you want to prove an inequality, let's say ##a<b## and you already know that ##a>c## is true. If you are able to prove that ##c<b## is true, would that go on to imply that ##a<b## is true also? If this is correct, is it known as a theorem?
Thank you!
Thank you!