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yoron
- 295
- 2
We all know the definition of a rope between two identical accelerating spaceships and how that rope will break assuming they both accelerate with the identical same velocity (as defined from a observer on Earth for example). And it makes sense, thinking of stress. But how do I define a Lorentz contraction inside a accelerating frame? It should be possible to do, as I think of it, as there should be a difference between the front and and the end of that spaceship accelerating (let's say uniformly).
Or am I bicycling in the blue younder here?
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Maybe it's easier to see if not assuming a uniform constant acceleration, but to me they both should have it?
Or am I bicycling in the blue younder here?
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Maybe it's easier to see if not assuming a uniform constant acceleration, but to me they both should have it?
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