Limit of (n)^(1/n)/n as n approaches infinity

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In summary, the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n as n approaches infinity is 1. This can be found using L'Hopital's rule or by rewriting the expression. It is not equal to 0 and cannot be evaluated using direct substitution. Finding this limit is significant in analyzing functions and sequences involving powers and roots of n, and can also prove the convergence of certain series.
  • #1
Dethrone
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Determine $$\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}\frac{(n!)^{1/n}}{n}$$
 
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  • #2
Rido12 said:
Determine $$\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}\frac{(n!)^{1/n}}{n}$$

By the continuity of the natural logarithm and using Stirling's approximation, we find that:
$$\ln \left [ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}}{n} \right ] = \lim_{n \to \infty} \ln \frac{(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}}{n} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left [ \frac{\ln{n!}}{n} - \ln{n} \right ] = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left [ \left ( \ln{n} + O \left ( \frac{\ln{n}}{n} \right ) - 1 \right ) - \ln{n} \right ] = -1$$
Therefore it follows that:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}}{n} = e^{-1} = \frac{1}{e}$$
 
  • #3
Excellent solution Bacterius! Thanks for participating. :D

For anyone who wants to tackle this without Stirling's approximation, I have a few hints:

Use the fact that, assuming $f$ is non-negative and increasing:
$$\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}f(k)\le\int_1^nf(x) \,dx\le\sum_{k=1}^{n}f(k)$$

and apply it to $\ln(x)$ to get $en^ne^{-n}<n!<en^{n+1}e^{-n}$.
 
  • #4
Here is my method:

If $a_n = \frac{(n!)^{1/n}}{n}$, then

$$a_n = \sqrt[n]{\left(1 - \frac{1}{n}\right)\left(1 - \frac{2}{n}\right)\cdots \left(1 - \frac{n-1}{n}\right)} = \exp\left\{\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k = 0}^{n-1}\log\left(1 - \frac{k}{n}\right)\right\},$$

which converges to

$$\exp\left\{\int_0^1 \log(1 - x)\, dx\right\} = \exp\left\{\int_0^1\log x\, dx\right\} = \exp(-1) = \frac{1}{e}.$$
 
  • #5
Hi Euge! Very interesting solution, excellent job! (Cool)

$$\sum_{k}^{n-1}\ln k \le\int_{1}^{n} \ln x\,dx \le \sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln k$$
$$\implies \ln(n-1)! \le n \ln n-n+1 \le \ln n!$$

On the left hand side, it can be shown that $\ln(n-1)! \le n\ln n -n+1 \implies n! \le n^{n+1}e^{-n}e$ and on the right hand side, $n \ln n-n+1 \le \ln n! \implies n^ne^{-n}\le n!$.

$$n^ne^{-n}e \le n! \le n^{n+1}e^{-n}e$$$$\implies\frac{e^{1/n}}{e}\le \frac{(n!)^{1/n}}{n} \le \frac{e^{1/n}n^{1/n}}{e}$$

Furthermore, $\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}a^{1/n}=1$ and $\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}n^{1/n}=1$, so by the squeeze theorem,
$$\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}\frac{(n!)^{1/n}}{n}=\frac{1}{e}$$
 

FAQ: Limit of (n)^(1/n)/n as n approaches infinity

What is the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n as n approaches infinity?

The limit of (n)^(1/n)/n as n approaches infinity is 1. This can be shown by using L'Hopital's rule or by rewriting the expression as (n^(1/n))^1/n and using the limit laws.

How do you find the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n?

To find the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n, you can use L'Hopital's rule or rewrite the expression as (n^(1/n))^1/n and use the limit laws.

Is the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n equal to 0?

No, the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n is not equal to 0. As n approaches infinity, the expression approaches 1, not 0.

Can the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n be evaluated using direct substitution?

No, the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n cannot be evaluated using direct substitution because it results in an indeterminate form of 0/0. L'Hopital's rule or rewriting the expression are necessary steps to evaluate the limit.

What is the significance of finding the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n?

Finding the limit of (n)^(1/n)/n is important in analyzing the behavior of functions and sequences that involve powers and roots of n. It can also be used to prove the convergence of certain series.

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