- #176
George Jones
Staff Emeritus
Science Advisor
Gold Member
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It is not that ##\hat{\eta^m}\nabla_m(h^{b}{}{}_{n}\phi^n) = 0 ## is contracted with the spatial metric, it is that ##\hat{\eta^m}\nabla_m(h^{b}{}{}_{n}\phi^n)## can be non-zero even though the spatial projection of ##\hat{\eta^m}\nabla_m(h^{b}{}{}_{n}\phi^n) ## is zero.WannabeNewton said:Why is it that we must contract ##\hat{\eta^m}\nabla_m(h^{b}{}{}_{n}\phi^n) = 0 ## with the spatial metric ##h_{ab} = g_{ab} - \hat{\eta_a}\hat{\eta_b}## (using the author's metric signature convention) in order to have that constancy?
This morning I had a look at the simpler scenario in which ##\gamma## is the worldline of an observer in Minkowski spacetime (one dimension for time and one dimension for space is sufficient) who has constant proper acceleration. Consider an orthonormal frame ##\left\{e_{0'} , e_{1'} \right\}## with ##e_{0'}## tangent to ##\gamma## and with the frame Fermi-transported.
Should ##e_{1'}## be considered spatially constant with respect to ##\gamma##?
Does ##\nabla_{e_{0'}} e_{1'} = 0##?
What about the spatial projection of ##\nabla_{e_{0'}} e_{1'}##?