- #1
Pencilvester
- 199
- 46
In deriving the Lorentz transformation, is it required to assume that the transformation to get from coordinate system ##\bf {x}## to ##\bf {x’}## should be the same as that to get from ##\bf {x’}## to ##\bf {x}## (with the simple correction of flipping the velocity)? If no, could someone direct me to a derivation that does not assume this a priori? I’m having trouble deriving it myself without this assumption. If yes, what is the basis for this assumption?