- #1
DaTario
- 1,056
- 42
Hi All,
The famous proof of the theorem: ## 1 = 0.9999999...## seems to point to a statement more or less like this:
"There is no uniqueness in decimal expansions of real numbers, specially if one wishes to compare numbers (and their decimal expansions) extremely close of one another."
Is this is correct, shouldn't this imply that it is kind of useless to assign to intervals adjectives as closed or opened?
It seems that one of the extremes of an interval may be proved to be equal to anyone of its two immediate neighbors.
Best wishes,
DaTario
The famous proof of the theorem: ## 1 = 0.9999999...## seems to point to a statement more or less like this:
"There is no uniqueness in decimal expansions of real numbers, specially if one wishes to compare numbers (and their decimal expansions) extremely close of one another."
Is this is correct, shouldn't this imply that it is kind of useless to assign to intervals adjectives as closed or opened?
It seems that one of the extremes of an interval may be proved to be equal to anyone of its two immediate neighbors.
Best wishes,
DaTario