- #1
psie
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- TL;DR Summary
- I've come across two definitions of local compactness. One author seems to equate these definitions and I wonder if they are actually equivalent, and if not, if it has any consequences?
I have a hard time accepting definitions that are inequivalent. So the main point of my post is to ask for confirmation that it does not matter having inequivalent definitions, but I'm not sure about this. Maybe these two definitions being inequivalent actually have some consequences.
First, there are two common definitions of a neighborhood:
Now, here's the following definition of locally compact which I've come across in Topology: An Invitation by Parthasarathy (who uses definition 1):
First, there are two common definitions of a neighborhood:
Defintion 1 For ##x \in X##, ##V \subset X## is a neighborhood of ##x## if ##x \in U \subset V## for some open set ##U \subset X##. [e.g. Gamelin and Greene]
Definition 2 For ##x \in X##, ##V \subset X## is a neighborhood of ##x## if ##x \in V## and ##V## is open. [e.g. Munkres]
Now, here's the following definition of locally compact which I've come across in Topology: An Invitation by Parthasarathy (who uses definition 1):
I don't follow how every point having a compact neighborhood is equivalent to there is an open set that contains the point whose closure is compact. When I read definition 3 I interpret the "i.e." as equating these two statements, but are they equivalent? If not, does it matter?Definition 3 A topological space ##X## is said to be locally compact if every point ##x\in X## has a compact neighborhood; i.e. there is an open set ##V## such that ##x\in V## and ##\overline{V}## is compact.