Order of Groups: Proving ord(\theta(x)) = ord(x)

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The discussion revolves around proving that for an injective group homomorphism \(\theta: G \to H\), the order of \(\theta(x)\) is equal to the order of \(x\) for each element \(x\) in group \(G\). The initial response incorrectly defines \(\theta(x)\) as a set rather than a single element, leading to confusion. A correct approach involves demonstrating that if the order of \(x\) is \(a\), then \(\theta(x^a) = e'\) in \(H\) and that any smaller order \(b < a\) leads to a contradiction. The conclusion emphasizes that the injective nature of \(\theta\) ensures the orders are preserved, confirming that \(ord(\theta(x)) = ord(x)\). The verification of these steps is crucial for a complete proof.
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Hi i have completed the answer to this question. Just need your verification on whether it's completely correct or not:

Question:
If G is a group and xEG we define the order ord(x) by:
ord(x) = min{r \geq 1: x^r = 1}

If \theta: G --> H is an injective group homomorphism show that, for each xEG, ord(\theta(x)) = ord(x)

My answer: Please verify
If \theta(x) = {x^r: r \epsilon Z} then ord(\theta(x)) = ord(x).

For any integer r, we have x^r = e (or 1) if and only if ord(x) divides r.

In general the order of any subgroup of G divides the order of G. If H is a subgroup of G then "ord (G) / ord(H) = [G:H]" where [G:H] is an index of H in G, an integer.
So order for any xEG divides order of the group. So ord(\theta(x)) = ord(x)


any suggestions or changes please? thnx :)
 
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smoothman said:
Hi i have completed the answer to this question. Just need your verification on whether it's completely correct or not:

Question:
If G is a group and xEG we define the order ord(x) by:
ord(x) = min{r \geq 1: x^r = 1}

If \theta: G --> H is an injective group homomorphism show that, for each xEG, ord(\theta(x)) = ord(x)

My answer: Please verify
If \theta(x) = {x^r: r \epsilon Z} then ord(\theta(x)) = ord(x).
This makes no sense. \theta(x) is a single member of H, not a set of members of G.

For any integer r, we have x^r = e (or 1) if and only if ord(x) divides r.

In general the order of any subgroup of G divides the order of G. If H is a subgroup of G then "ord (G) / ord(H) = [G:H]" where [G:H] is an index of H in G, an integer.
An "index of H in G"? It is not said here that H has to be a subset of G!

So order for any xEG divides order of the group. So ord(\theta(x)) = ord(x)


any suggestions or changes please? thnx :)

Seems to me you could just use the fact that, for any injective homomorphism, \theta, \theta(x^r)= [\theta(x)]^r and \theta(1_G)= 1_H.
 
i believe we have to show 2 things:

i) (\theta(x))^a = e&#039;
ii) 0 &lt; b &lt; a \implies (\theta(x))^b \neq e&#039;.

ok so basically:

If ord(x)=a then \left[ {\phi (x)} \right]^a = \left[ {\phi (x^a )} \right] = \phi (e) = e&#039;.
Now suppose that ord\left[ {\phi (x)} \right] = b &lt; a.
Then
\left[ {\phi (x)} \right]^b = e&#039; = \left[ {\phi (x)} \right]^a
\phi (x^b ) = \phi (x^a )
x^b = x^a (injective)
x^{a - b} = e

there seems to be a contradiction where if x^{a} = x^{b}, then \left[ {\phi (x)} \right]^b = e&#039; which is not what statement (ii) says.
am i correct in this assumption? any ideas on how to deal with this?
 
When you have x^{a-b} = e, then a-b is positive since you assumed b<a. But this contradicts the definition of order. Done.
 
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