- #71
Philip Koeck
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- 218
I'm still trying to make sense of your proof.Petr Matas said:Theorem:
A gas column in thermodynamic equilibrium in a classical homogeneous gravitational field has the same temperature everywhere.
Proof using the laws of motion:
Let at time 0 a point particle with mass ##m## is located at height 0 and its velocity is ##\mathbf{v}_0 = (v_{\text x 0}, v_{\text y 0}, v_{\text z 0})##. Its total energy is
$$ E = \tfrac{1}{2} m (v_{\text x 0}^2 + v_{\text y 0}^2 + v_{\text z 0}^2). $$
Let us assume the particle moves without collisions. At time ##t## it is at height ##z##, its velocity is ##\mathbf{v} = (v_{\text x 0}, v_{\text y 0}, v_{\text z})## and it has the same total energy
$$ E = \tfrac{1}{2} m (v_{\text x 0}^2 + v_{\text y 0}^2 + v_{\text z}^2) + mgz,
$$ where ##g## is the gravitational acceleration.
Comparison of the two equations yields
$$
v_{\text z 0}^2 = v_{\text z}^2 + 2gz, \tag 1
$$ $$
v_{\text z 0} = \pm \sqrt{v_{\text z}^2 + 2gz}. \tag 2
$$
Differentiation of equation ##(1)## yields
$$ v_{\text z 0} dv_{\text z 0} = v_{\text z} dv_{\text z}. \tag 3 $$
Maybe we could go through it step by step.
When you take the first derivative of equation (1), is that with respect to time? If so, why don't you write that?
And then I would also wonder (just like @anuttarasammyak) why you don't include the term 2 g dz/dt, which would give 2 g vz, right?
Edit: Only z and vz depend on t so differentiating equation (1) with respect to t gives:
0 = 2 vz dvz / dt + 2 g vz
This means that dvz / dt = - g, which is correct.
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