Particle Disintegration: Equation trouble

  • Thread starter Thread starter Piano man
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Particle
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the complexities of deriving the equation for cos(θ₀) in particle disintegration scenarios. The original poster is confused about the relationship between angles and velocities in different reference frames, particularly in non-relativistic versus relativistic contexts. Participants clarify that the equations must be treated as vector equations, emphasizing the importance of proper algebraic manipulation. After some back-and-forth, the original poster successfully derives the correct equation for cos(θ₀) with assistance from another user. The exchange highlights the challenges of understanding particle decay dynamics and the necessity of careful mathematical handling in physics.
Piano man
Messages
73
Reaction score
0
Hi, I'm reading about particle disintegration at the moment and there's a step I don't follow.

I've got the following equation:

\tan\theta=\frac{v_0\sin\theta_0}{v_0\cos\theta_0+V} where \theta is the resultant angle in the Laboratory system and \theta_0 is the resultant angle in the Centre of Mass system.

Also given is v=V+v_0 which are respectively the velocity of a resulting particle in the L system, the velocity of the primary particle in the L system, and the velocity of the resulting particle in the C system.

Solving for \cos\theta_0 one should obtain

\cos\theta_0=-\frac{V}{v_0}\sin^2\theta \pm \cos\theta\sqrt{1-\frac{V^2\sin^2\theta}{v_0^2}}

but I've gotten \cos\theta_0=\frac{V}{v_0}(\cos\theta-1)+\cos\theta

from the substitution \sin\theta_0=\sin\theta\left(\frac{V+v_0}{v_0}\right) which seems geometrically sound.

Can anyone see where that other equation comes from for \cos\theta_0?

Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Are you sure the equation you started with applies to this situation? It's valid for non-relativistic cases, but particle decay typically involves relativistic speeds.
 
Yes, in the book, it follows on immediately, with no mention of relativistic effects.
I think it's just some algebraic reworking of the equation that I'm not seeing.
 
From the equation

\tan\theta=\frac{v_0\sin\theta_0}{v_0\cos\theta_0+V}

I'm inferring that the angles are measured relative to the direction of V, the velocity of the primary particle in the lab frame. Your second equation from equating the y-components in the two frames is wrong. It should be

v_0\sin\theta_0=\sqrt{(v_0\cos\theta_0+V)^2+(v_0\sin\theta_0)^2}\sin\theta

The equation relating the velocities should be

\vec{v}=\vec{v}_0+\vec{V}

which is a vector equation, so you can't just add the magnitudes of v0 and V to get the magnitude of v.

To derive the other equation, start with the tan θ equation, square it, and rewrite sin2 θ0 in terms of cos θ0. You'll get a quadratic equation in cos θ0.
 
Excellent! I got it!

That was some marathon of a reworking - three pages and an hour later...

Thanks vela for your help. :)
 
Excellent! I got it!

That was some marathon of a reworking - three pages and an hour later...

Thanks vela for your help.
 
Thread 'Help with Time-Independent Perturbation Theory "Good" States Proof'
(Disclaimer: this is not a HW question. I am self-studying, and this felt like the type of question I've seen in this forum. If there is somewhere better for me to share this doubt, please let me know and I'll transfer it right away.) I am currently reviewing Chapter 7 of Introduction to QM by Griffiths. I have been stuck for an hour or so trying to understand the last paragraph of this proof (pls check the attached file). It claims that we can express Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of...
Back
Top