Particle in semi infinite potential well

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on solving the Schrödinger equation (SE) for a particle in a semi-infinite potential well, specifically for the case where energy E is less than the potential V. The user expresses confusion about the general solution for the wave function inside the well, noting discrepancies between their textbook and lecture notes regarding the form of the solution. It is clarified that the exponential and trigonometric forms of the wave function are equivalent, as they can be transformed into each other using Euler's formula. The constants in the solutions are arbitrary, allowing for different representations. Understanding these relationships is key to solving the SE effectively.
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Homework Statement


particle moving in the semi infinite potentail well set up and solve SE for the system assume E<Vo

Homework Equations


(-h2/2m) d2\psi/dx2 +v(x)\psi=E\psi

The Attempt at a Solution


so in reagion one its infinite so \psi=0. reagion 2 is what i am confused about. looking throught the book i saw the gen solution for inside the well to be \psi=Ae(ikx)+Be-(ikx) but for this problem its Acos(kx)+Bsin(kx)
in the book does not really show how it finds the gen solution. I am just a little confused on how you would solve the SE well i know for inside v=0 and i plug that into SE and from that the book just goes to the gen solution
thanks

edit after looking at lecture note i see he uses the cos for the inside , but in they book for the same infinite pot well they use the e^ are they the same?
 
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The solutions are equivalent. They're just being expressed in different bases.
\begin{align*}
A e^{ikx} + B e^{-ikx} &= A(\cos kx+i\sin kx)+B(\cos kx-i\sin kx) \\
&= (A+B)\cos kx + i(A-B)\sin kx \\
&= C \cos kx + D \sin kx
\end{align*}Since A and B are arbitrary constants, C=A+B and D=i(A-B) are as well.
 
o ok thxs
 
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