Phase velocity, Group velocity

AI Thread Summary
Phase velocity refers to the speed at which a wave phase propagates in a medium, while group velocity is the speed at which the overall envelope shape of the wave's amplitudes (or the signal) travels. For a Gaussian-shaped signal, the maximum intensity can be determined using the formula t = z/(group velocity), where the group velocity is calculated at the frequency of maximum intensity. Understanding these concepts is crucial for analyzing wave propagation in various media, such as crystals. The discussion highlights the importance of grasping these definitions for practical applications in physics.
Theoretician
Messages
36
Reaction score
0
Would someone be kind enough to please give physical meanings to these two terms? I have never fully understood their meaning and difference (although I know how to express them mathematically).

If, say, I have a Gaussian-shaped signal in the frequency domain that I am sending through a medium (such as a crystal) in the direction z say and I want to specify where the maximum intensity is as a function of t (it is at z=0 when t=0), am I right in saying that I would use:

t= z/(group velocity)

where the group velocity is obviously evaluated at the frequency of largest intensity.

Any help on this fairly basic matter would be much appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Thank you, I shall have a look but I actually think that I have a good enough understanding now having read a few relevant sections in the Feynman Lectures (sorry, this is what I should have done first).
 
Thread 'Is 'Velocity of Transport' a Recognized Term in English Mechanics Literature?'
Here are two fragments from Banach's monograph in Mechanics I have never seen the term <<velocity of transport>> in English texts. Actually I have never seen this term being named somehow in English. This term has a name in Russian books. I looked through the original Banach's text in Polish and there is a Polish name for this term. It is a little bit surprising that the Polish name differs from the Russian one and also differs from this English translation. My question is: Is there...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top