- #1
ognik
- 643
- 2
Hi - revising Sturm-Liouville theory and would appreciate someone checking & correcting/improving the following.
Given Laguerre's eqtn $xy''+(1-x)y'+\lambda y = 0 $, which is not self-adjoint, find the weighting factor w(x).
If I didn't know the integrating factor, would one be $ \mu(x) = \frac{1}{x} e^{\int\frac{1-x}{x}dx} = \frac{1}{x}\left( x-e^{x} \right)$? As it is I know $\mu(x) = e^{-x}$ works well.
Then $ e^{-x} xy''+ e^{-x} (1-x)y'+ e^{-x} \lambda y = 0 $ and I verify this is self-adjoint by showing $p'_0$ = $p_1$
Then by comparison with the Sturm-Liouville problem $ \mathcal{L}y + \lambda W(x)y = 0 $, I can write:
$q(x) = 0$
$\lambda$ is the eigenvalue and y(x) is the corresponding eigenfunction
and $w(x) = e^{-x}$
Anything I am missing?
Given Laguerre's eqtn $xy''+(1-x)y'+\lambda y = 0 $, which is not self-adjoint, find the weighting factor w(x).
If I didn't know the integrating factor, would one be $ \mu(x) = \frac{1}{x} e^{\int\frac{1-x}{x}dx} = \frac{1}{x}\left( x-e^{x} \right)$? As it is I know $\mu(x) = e^{-x}$ works well.
Then $ e^{-x} xy''+ e^{-x} (1-x)y'+ e^{-x} \lambda y = 0 $ and I verify this is self-adjoint by showing $p'_0$ = $p_1$
Then by comparison with the Sturm-Liouville problem $ \mathcal{L}y + \lambda W(x)y = 0 $, I can write:
$q(x) = 0$
$\lambda$ is the eigenvalue and y(x) is the corresponding eigenfunction
and $w(x) = e^{-x}$
Anything I am missing?