Poisson brackets for a particle in a magnetic field

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the computation of Poisson brackets for a particle in a magnetic field, specifically addressing the Hamiltonian formulation. The participant expresses difficulty in understanding how to calculate the Poisson bracket structure, particularly with the canonical coordinates and their derivatives. They provide the Hamiltonian and relevant equations but struggle with the application of the Poisson bracket properties. Clarifications are sought regarding the definitions of the variables involved and the correct approach to the calculations. The conversation highlights the complexities of Hamiltonian mechanics and the need for a clearer understanding of the underlying mathematical framework.
joriarty
Messages
61
Reaction score
0
I'm struggling to understand Poisson brackets a little here... excerpt from some notes:

We’ve seen in the example of section 4.1.3 that a particle in a magnetic field \textbf{B} = ∇×\textbf{A}
is described by the Hamiltonian
H = \frac{1}{2m}\left( \textbf{p} - \frac{e}{c} \textbf{a} (\textbf{r} ) \right)^2 = \frac{m}{2} \dot{\textbf{r}}^2
where, as usual in the Hamiltonian, \dot{\textbf{r}} is to be thought of as a function of r and p. It’s a simple matter to compute the Poisson bracket structure for this system: it reads
\{ m\dot{r} _a , m\dot{r} _b \} = \frac{e}{c}\epsilon _{abc} B_c

I am, however, stumped on how this Poisson bracket has been computed. I presume ra and Aa(r) are my canonical coordinates, and I have \dot{r}_a = p_a - \frac{e}{c}A_a (r) with A_a = \frac{1}{2}\epsilon _{abc}B_br_c

Unfortunately, my calculations on paper aren't getting anywhere! Could someone please shed some light here? I suspect something is wrong with the canonical coordinates I'm trying to use to do the derivatives for the Poisson brackets, or maybe I'm getting my indices muddled.

Thanks :)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Notice that:
<br /> \left\lbrace p_a, f(\mathbf{r}) \right\rbrace = \sum_{b}{\left(\frac{\partial p_a}{\partial x_b} \, \frac{\partial f(\mathbf{r})}{\partial p_b} - \frac{\partial p_a}{\partial p_b} \, \frac{\partial f(\mathbf{r})}{\partial x_b}\right)} = -\frac{\partial f(\mathbf{r})}{\partial x_a}<br />

Therefore:
<br /> \begin{align*}<br /> \left\lbrace m \, \dot{r}_a, m \, \dot{r}_b \right\rbrace &amp; = \left\lbrace p_a - \frac{e}{c} \, A_a(\mathbf{r}), p_b - \frac{e}{c} \, A_b(\mathbf{r}) \right\rbrace \\<br /> &amp; = \left\lbrace p_a, p_b \right\rbrace - \frac{e}{c} \, \left\lbrace p_a, A_b(\mathbf{r})\right\rbrace + \frac{e}{c} \, \left\lbrace p_b, A_a(\mathbf{r}) \right\rbrace + \left(\frac{e}{c} \right)^2 \, \left\lbrace A_a(\mathbf{r}), A_b(\mathbf{r}) \right\rbrace<br /> \end{align*}<br />

Two of these are identically zero, and for two of them you can use the hint I gave in the beginning. Then, use the properties of the Levi-Civita symbol and the definition of curl of a vector potential.
 
Thanks for your help Dickfore.

I'm not sure where your first expression comes from. I suppose Aa(r) is f(r), but what is xa? Thus, I'm having trouble seeing how to apply that to where you've broken down the Poisson brackets by linearity (I see that the first and last terms there are zero, though).

Classical mechanics usually makes sense to me, but the whole Hamiltonian formalism just isn't clicking very well...
 
x_{a} stands for the a-th component of the position vector, just a p_{a} is the a-th component of the momentum vector.
 
Thread 'Help with Time-Independent Perturbation Theory "Good" States Proof'
(Disclaimer: this is not a HW question. I am self-studying, and this felt like the type of question I've seen in this forum. If there is somewhere better for me to share this doubt, please let me know and I'll transfer it right away.) I am currently reviewing Chapter 7 of Introduction to QM by Griffiths. I have been stuck for an hour or so trying to understand the last paragraph of this proof (pls check the attached file). It claims that we can express Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of...
Back
Top