- #1
Fabian901
- 30
- 0
If Power = Force x Distance / Time, does that mean that if we apply the same force on 2 objects with different masses and we apply the force across the same distance, the object with the lower mass will have a higher power?. The way I'm looking at this is that the object with the lower mass will have a higher acceleration (a = F/m) and therefore reach distance "D" faster than the object with the higher mass. Please correct me if I am wrong as I don't want to go to the next topic without fully understanding this concept.
Thanks in advance!
Thanks in advance!