Probability inequality for the sum of independent normal random variables

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The discussion centers on finding a probability inequality for the sum of independent normal random variables, specifically addressing the tail probabilities of the average of these variables. An exact equality is established, indicating that the sum of independent normal variables follows a normal distribution with mean μ and variance σ²/n. The Bernstein inequality for bounded random variables is noted, but the participants seek a similar bound for normal variables. A referenced inequality by R. D. Gordon provides a bound for tail probabilities, but its limitations are acknowledged due to the lack of an analytical inverse function. The conversation concludes with a query about alternative bounds for the tail probability of a normal variable.
phonic
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Dear all,

I wonder wheather there exsits a probability inequality for the sum of independent normal random variables (X_i are i.i.d. normal random varianble with mean \mu and variance \sigma^2):
<br /> P\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i - \mu&gt; \epsilon\right)\leq<br /> f(\epsilon, \sigma^2,n) \right).<br />

We know that Bernstein inequality is for the sum of bounded random variables:
<br /> P\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i -\mu &gt; \epsilon\right)\leq<br /> \exp\left(-\frac{n\epsilon^2}{2\sigma^2+ 2c\epsilon/3} \right).<br />

I wonder whether there is some similar inequality for normal variables.

Thanks!

Phonic
 
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There is an exact equality; it follows from Σ X/n ~ N(μ, σ^2/n).
 
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Tanks for your reply. Then the problem is to bound the tail probability of this normal variable. I know one inequality is (R. D. Gordon, The Annals of Mathematical Statistics, 1941(12), pp 364-366)
<br /> P(z \geq x) = \int_x^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}<br /> e^{-\frac{1}{2}z^2} dz \leq \frac{1}{x}<br /> \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}x^2}\mbox{\hspace{1cm}for } x&gt;0,<br />
where z is a standard normal variable.

The problem of this inequality is that the function \frac{1}{x}<br /> e^{-\frac{1}{2}x^2} is nor invertible (no analytical inverse function). Do you know some other bound for tail probability of a normal variable? Thanks a lot!

EnumaElish said:
There is an exact equality; it follows from Σ X/n ~ N(μ, σ^2/n).
 
Haven't you changed the upper bound function? Can the new function not have σ^2 or n as arguments? If it can, then you have an exact statement of the tail probability.
 
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...
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