- #1
Lotto
- 238
- 16
- TL;DR Summary
- We have 10 ball, 6 are blue, 4 are red. What is the probability that if we take two balls, the ball will have the same colour?
I know it is a simple problem, but I am confused by the fact that we can look at the problem from two points of view.
In general, we differentiate between the balls of the same colour, I mean we could mark them B1, B2, ... and B6, the same way R1, R2, R3 and R4. Then we could say that the probability that we choose two blue balls can be ##\frac{6 \cdot 5}{10 \cdot 9}##, we just have possibilities such as (B1,B2) or (B2, B1) or (B2, B3) etc. So the position of the balls we take matters. In the same way we can calculate the probability for the red balls.
But we can also calculate the probability for the blue balls as ##\frac{{6}\choose{2}}{{10}\choose{2}}##, so here the positions don't matter - B1, B2 and B2, B1 is the same possibility.
So, why can we look at the problem from two points of view? In one case, positions matter, in the second case they don't. Why? Let's say this is a case when we take the balls one by one. But if we arranged it so that we chose the two balls simultaneously, the probability would be still the same, because we would use the binomial coefficient again.
In general, we differentiate between the balls of the same colour, I mean we could mark them B1, B2, ... and B6, the same way R1, R2, R3 and R4. Then we could say that the probability that we choose two blue balls can be ##\frac{6 \cdot 5}{10 \cdot 9}##, we just have possibilities such as (B1,B2) or (B2, B1) or (B2, B3) etc. So the position of the balls we take matters. In the same way we can calculate the probability for the red balls.
But we can also calculate the probability for the blue balls as ##\frac{{6}\choose{2}}{{10}\choose{2}}##, so here the positions don't matter - B1, B2 and B2, B1 is the same possibility.
So, why can we look at the problem from two points of view? In one case, positions matter, in the second case they don't. Why? Let's say this is a case when we take the balls one by one. But if we arranged it so that we chose the two balls simultaneously, the probability would be still the same, because we would use the binomial coefficient again.