Prove lim na^n = 0 when 0 < a < 1

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The discussion focuses on proving that the limit of na^n approaches 0 as n approaches infinity for 0 < a < 1. The initial approach involves transforming the limit into a continuous form and applying L'Hospital's rule to demonstrate that xa^x converges to 0. Participants suggest alternative methods, including using the Archimedean property and the squeeze theorem, to simplify the proof without heavy reliance on calculus. Inductive reasoning is also proposed as a viable strategy to establish the limit. Overall, various techniques are explored to find the most straightforward proof for this limit.
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Homework Statement
Prove lim na^n = 0 when 0 < a < 1.

The attempt at a solution
Without danger, we change from the discrete n to the continuous x so that now we have to prove that lim xa^x = 0. Let e > 0. We have to find an N such that xa^x < e for all x > N. Now if xa^x < e is the same as 1 < eb^x/x, where b = 1/a. Using L'Hospital's rule, we have that lim eb^x/x = lim e(ln b)b^x = oo, so there is an N such that 1 < eb^x/x. QED

Is this the simplest way to prove this limit. For some odd reason, I feel that there is a simpler solution. Any tips?
 
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Apply L'Hopital's rule in the limit \lim x.a^x after writing x.a^x = \frac{x}{a^{-x}}.
 
My first inclination is not to use calculus at all!

Let a < u < 1. Prove that, eventually, (n+1)/n < u/a. Then, an easy inductive proof shows that 0 < n a^n < C u^n for some constant C.

I suppose technically I've used some amount of calculus in that I invoke the Archimedean property, the squeeze theorem, and knowledge that u^n converges to 0.


Come to think of it, the inductive step isn't really going to be conceptually much different from taking a derivative or a logarithmic derivative. (Though the analogy might seem opaque if you're just learning this stuff)
 
I would do it by showing log(n*a^n)/n goes to log(a) using l'Hopital. Hence log(n*a^n) approaches -infinity.
 
Thank you for the suggestions. I'm a little rusty on this stuff.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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