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Homework Statement
Prove that the two trig identities are equivalent.
[tex]cos \ x \ -\frac{cos \ x}{1-tan \ x} \ = \ \frac{sin \ x \ cos \ x \ }{sin \ x \ - \ cos \ x}[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
My professor recommended that we only work with one side of the equality when we're trying to prove them equivalent, and I've mainly tried using the left side. I've tried this from several different angles, and this seems to be the most viable point I've gotten to so far.
[tex]cos \ x \ -\frac{cos \ x}{1-tan \ x} \ = \ \frac{sin \ x \ cos \ x \ }{sin \ x \ - \ cos \ x}[/tex]
Working with the left side, I multiplied the cos x by (1-tan x)\(1-tan x) to get them over a common denominator, and I get-
[tex]\frac{-cos \ x \ tan \ x}{1-tan \ x}[/tex]
Then I rationalized the denominator by multiplying top and bottom by 1+tan x...
[tex]-\frac{cos \ x \ tan \ x \ -cos \ x \ tan^2 \ x}{1-tan^2 \ x}[/tex]
Then I converted the tangent in the numerator to sine/cosine and canceled the cosines to get--
[tex]-\frac{sin \ x \ - \ cos \ x \ tan^2 \ x}{1-tan^2 \ x}[/tex]
And at this point I've hit a brick wall. Should I try using secant and cosecant identities? Should I have started it out differently, or worked with the other side? I've tried this several different ways, and I've tried transforming the right side of the equality into the left side as well, and I can't seem to get anywhere. I also tried converting the tan^2 in the numerator into sin^2/cos^2, and canceled the cosines to get sin^2/cos, but that didn't seem to help.
What am I doing wrong? Any help is much appreciated. :)