Proving & Solving Integrals with Multiplication Theorem

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on proving the integral identity involving a cosine function and a power of x, specifically showing that the integral of x to the power of -1/2 times cosine equals t to the power of -1/2. Participants suggest using multiplication and integration techniques, including residue calculus, to approach the problem. They reference advanced calculus texts for guidance on contour integration and gamma functions, which are essential for solving the integral of cos(y^2). The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the first part of the proof to successfully compute the integral of cos(x^2). Overall, the thread emphasizes the need for a solid grasp of complex analysis techniques to tackle these integral problems.
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Homework Statement



Prove

\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\int^{\infty}_0x^{-\frac{1}{2}}\cos (xt)dx=t^{-\frac{1}{2}}

and use that to solve

\int^{\infty}_0\cos y^2dy

Is this good way to try to prove?



Homework Equations







The Attempt at a Solution


Homework Statement


Multiplicate both sides with \cos x'tdt and integrate from zero to \infty

\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\int^{\infty}_0dt\cos (x't)\int^{\infty}_0x^{-\frac{1}{2}}\cos (xt)dx=\int^{\infty}_0dt\cos (x't)t^{-\frac{1}{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\int^{\infty}_0dxx^{-\frac{1}{2}}\int^{\infty}_0dt\cos (x't)\cos (xt)dx
 
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Suppose that we know

\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\int^{\infty}_0\cos(xt)x^{-\frac{1}{2}}dx=t^{-\frac{1}{2}}

without proving. How to calculate then

\int^{\infty}_0\cos x^2dx
 
Last edited:
you need to use residue calculus.
if you can go to library look at hildebrand advanced calculus for applications, under the intended contours you will see how to use cauchy's principle and then you'll get gamma functions.
 
For which part of problem. This is problem from Arfken, Weber.
 
you can do the proof and also find part b when you understand the first part I assume.look hildebrand page 561 to be exact
 
\int^{\infty}_0\frac{\cos x}{x^{1-m}}dx=\Gamma(m)\cos (\frac{m\pi}{2})

\int^{\infty}_0\frac{\cos x}{x^{1-\frac{1}{2}}}dx=\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})\cos (\frac{\frac{1}{2}\pi}{2})=\sqrt{\pi}\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}=\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}

I don't see solution :(
 
you need to look at contour integration and use xt instead of x there. By using residue and appropriate contour you'll be able to find t^-1/2
 
Ok. Thanks. And what then. When I prove first part, how can I calculate integral \int^{\infty}_0\cos x^2dx?
 
  • #10
Take t=1 in what you have proven already then do a simple substitution to get rid of the sqrt.
 
  • #11
Thanks a lot! :)
 
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