- #1
Golak Bage
- 3
- 1
- TL;DR Summary
- Schwartz derives path integral formulation from 'non-relativistic QM'.
When computing the projection of time-evoluted state ## |x_j> ## on ## |x_{j+1}> ## it uses the 'completeness' of momentum basis ## \int \frac{dp}{2\pi} |p><p| ##. Next it explicitly states the form of Hamiltonian ## \hat{H} = \frac{\hat{p}^2}{2m}+\hat{V}(\hat{x_j},t_j) ##. Thereafter i believe it uses the relation $$ e^{\frac{\hat{p}^2}{2m}+\hat{V}(\hat{x_j},t_j)} = e^{\frac{\hat{p}^2}{2m}}\times e^{\hat{V}(\hat{x_j},t_j)}.$$ This pre-supposes that ##[\hat{p},\hat{V}(\hat{x_j},t_j)]=0##. In QM for any two operators (say ##\hat{A}\ \&\ \hat{B} ##) ##e^{\hat{A}+\hat{B}}=e^{\hat{A}}\times e^{\hat{B}}\times e^{-\frac{1}{2}[\hat{A}, \hat{B}]}##, therefore above relation doesn't appear general (it's more specific). I'd like some feedback on my thought.