Question regarding probability of observation

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around understanding conditional probabilities in the context of two binary random variables, A and B, where B depends on A. When A is observed as True, its probability becomes 1.0, while the probability of B being True is determined from the conditional probability table, yielding P(B=T) = 0.6. The user questions whether observing B=T implies P(B=T) is 1.0 and why the marginal probability of B is used in Bayes' theorem instead of this observed value. The responses clarify that once A is observed, its probability no longer holds independent meaning, and calculations must consider the underlying probabilities rather than just the observed outcomes. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the relationship between observed events and their probabilities in Bayesian analysis.
sri_newbie
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Hi Everyone,

I am a newbie in probability theory and following is my question:

Consider we have two binary random variables A and B. B is dependent on A. So we have two conditional probability tables P(A) and P(B|A) with the following parameters :

A P(A)
----------
F 0.3
T 0.7


A P(B=T|A)
------------------
F 0.4
T 0.6

Suppose that A=T is observed. So, now the probability of A being True is 1.0 instead of 0.3 and P(A=F) = 0.0 instead of 0.7. Observing A=T the probability of B=T is going to be 0.4, by just looking up the corresponding tuple in B's CPT. Consider a different scenario where we now observe only B=T. My first question is,

1) is P(B=T) going to be 1.0, since we have observed it, comparing to the first scenario of observing A=T? I know that if nothing is observed then P(B=T) is calculated as P(A=T)xP(B=T|A=T)+P(A=F)xP(B=T|A=F), which is the marginal probability of B=T.

My second question which follows from the first one is,
2) if P(B=T) = 1.0 when B=T has been observed, then while calculating the posterior probability of A=T given B=T i.e. P(A=T|B=T) why is it that we don't put P(B=T)=1.0 in the denominator of the following Baye's rule


P(A=T|B=T) = P(A=T) x P(B=T|A=T) / P(B=T)

Why do we use the marginal value of P(B=T) [when nothing is observed] computed by the expression
P(A=T) x P(B=T|A=T) + P(A=F) x P(B=T|A=F)?

Thanks in advance.
newbie
 
Physics news on Phys.org
OK - denote ##\small A## meaning ##\small A\leftarrow T## and ##\small \lnot A## meaning ##\small A \leftarrow F##.
$$\small P(A)=0.7\\
\small P(\lnot A)=0.3\\
\small P(B|A)=0.6\\
\small P(B|\lnot A)=0.4$$
So, if ##\small A## then ##\small P(B)=0.6##
We want to ask, if ##\small B## then what is ##\small P(A)## ?

Construct a tree and figure out how many situations could lead to B (=T).
That should allow you to confirm or refute your assertions.
 
Thank you Simon for your reply. If A=T then is P(A) = 1.0? I can understand that if A=T then P(B) = 0.6. I am just thinking what the probability of an observed event should be, not the unobserved event given some observation. This is actually my first question.
 
My response was in two parts.
The first part hoped to tidy up the notation in a way that may help you think about the problem.
The second part hoped to point you in the direction of finding the answers to your questions.

If you observed A, then P(A) no longer has any meaning by itself.
Subsequent observations may see A or not depending on the nature of the system.

If you tossed a (biased) coin, and left it there, then subsequent measurements will be the same as the first one. eg. if A="the coin shows heads side up when I look at it" and the result was A, then you can say that P(A)=1 for subsequent measurements (observations of the coin without tossing it).

i.e. P(A|A)=1.

You use coin A to select which of two possible B-coins to pick.
You toss the indicated one ...

But you wanted to consider the consequences of doing the math in reverse.
To understand how that works, you need to think what the reverse process is.
The reverse experiment would be that someone else follows the procedure and I see only the result on the B coin ... what does this tell me about the probable states of the A coin?

If you were thinking of a different experiment, then please describe it.
 
Last edited:
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...
I'm taking a look at intuitionistic propositional logic (IPL). Basically it exclude Double Negation Elimination (DNE) from the set of axiom schemas replacing it with Ex falso quodlibet: ⊥ → p for any proposition p (including both atomic and composite propositions). In IPL, for instance, the Law of Excluded Middle (LEM) p ∨ ¬p is no longer a theorem. My question: aside from the logic formal perspective, is IPL supposed to model/address some specific "kind of world" ? Thanks.
Back
Top