Ring Homomorphism - showing Multiplicativity

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The discussion centers on demonstrating that the map Q: A --> Z/2Z is a ring homomorphism, specifically focusing on its multiplicativity after establishing additivity. The user successfully proved additivity but struggled with the multiplicative aspect, attempting to equate Q((a+bi)(c+di)) with Q(a+bi)Q(c+di). A key insight provided is that both expressions can be simplified to show they are congruent modulo 2, specifically proving that -2bd is congruent to 0 mod 2. This conclusion confirms that the map Q satisfies the requirements for multiplicativity, completing the proof that Q is indeed a ring homomorphism.
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Hi,

I have the following map Q: A --> Z/2Z (where Z denotes the symbol for integers) defined by
Q(a + bi) = (a + b) + 2Z

where A = Z = {a + bi | a,b in Z} and i = √-1.


I need to show it is a ring homomorphism.

I have shown it is addivitivity by showing Q(a + b) = Q(a) + Q(b) by doing the following,
Q((a+bi)+(c+di)) = Q((a+c)+(b+d)i) = a+c+b+d+2Z = (a+b+2Z)+(c+d+2Z) = Q(a+bi) + Q(c+di)

Now for multiplicativity i know I have to show Q(ab) = Q(a)Q(b) but my working out seems to break down when i try to show LHS = RHS or RHS = LHS.

This is how I approached it thus far, LHS = RHS
Q((a+bi)(c+di)) = Q((ac-bd)+(ad+bc)i) = ac-bd+ad+bc+2Z and then I'm not sure where to go as nowhere seems to take me to what I need to show.


Any help would be most appreciated, thanks in advance
 
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Hi,

I have the following map Q: A --> Z/2Z (where Z denotes the symbol for integers) defined by
Q(a + bi) = (a + b) + 2Z

where A = Z = {a + bi | a,b in Z} and i = √-1.


I need to show it is a ring homomorphism.

I have shown it is addivitivity by showing Q(a + b) = Q(a) + Q(b) by doing the following,
Q((a+bi)+(c+di)) = Q((a+c)+(b+d)i) = a+c+b+d+2Z = (a+b+2Z)+(c+d+2Z) = Q(a+bi) + Q(c+di)

Now for multiplicativity i know I have to show Q(ab) = Q(a)Q(b) but my working out seems to break down when i try to show LHS = RHS or RHS = LHS.

This is how I approached it thus far, LHS = RHS
Q((a+bi)(c+di)) = Q((ac-bd)+(ad+bc)i) = ac-bd+ad+bc+2Z and then I'm not sure where to go as nowhere seems to take me to what I need to show.


Any help would be most appreciated, thanks in advance[/QUOTE]


Why do you think it'd be a good idea to post this question in General Math instead of Linear & Abstract Algebra?

Anyway, as you wrote:

Q\left((a+bi)(c+di)\right)=ac-bd+ad+bc+2Z , whereas

Q(a+bi)Q(c+di)=\left((a+b)+2Z\right)\left((c+d)+2Z\right)=ac+ad+bc+bd+2Z.

In order to show both lines above are the same, we must show that

ac-bd+ad+bc-(ac+ad+bc+bd)=0\pmod 2\Longleftrightarrow -2bd=0\pmod 2 , which is trivially true and we're done.

DonAntonio
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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