- #1
jeremyfiennes
- 323
- 17
- TL;DR Summary
- Relation between SR and the equivalence principle stated in a published paper, but that doesn't seem to make sense.
I was recommended a paper:
<https://digital.library.adelaide.edu.au/dspace/bitstream/2440/101285/3/hdl_101285.pdf>.
And in the opening sentence read: "The Einstein equivalence principle (EEP) is at the heart of special relativity."
To me this didn't make sense. Firstly because Einstein formulated the EEP in ~1909 when he heard of a man falling off the roof of a house, which this was four years after SR was published. And secondly, because the EEP involves acceleration, whereas SR specifically excludes it. But since the paper was accepted by two reputable journals, I am wondering if there is some aspect that I am not grasping.
<https://digital.library.adelaide.edu.au/dspace/bitstream/2440/101285/3/hdl_101285.pdf>.
And in the opening sentence read: "The Einstein equivalence principle (EEP) is at the heart of special relativity."
To me this didn't make sense. Firstly because Einstein formulated the EEP in ~1909 when he heard of a man falling off the roof of a house, which this was four years after SR was published. And secondly, because the EEP involves acceleration, whereas SR specifically excludes it. But since the paper was accepted by two reputable journals, I am wondering if there is some aspect that I am not grasping.