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- Is it true that the potential arising at A from induced charges on conductor B from point charge q at C = that arising at C from induction on B from charge q at A?
A homework thread, https://www.physicsforums.com/threa...etal-sheet-along-a-spherical-surface.1057702/, references https://arxiv.org/pdf/1007.2175.pdf.
There is an uncharged conductor and a point charge. In the paper referenced, ##\bar\phi_y(x)## is defined as the potential at x due to the induced charges on the conductor when the point charge is at y.
As justification for eqn 10 it states that ##\bar\phi_x(y)=\bar\phi_y(x)##.
I cannot see why that should be true, but I cannot construct any counterexample.
Is it evident, or maybe some standard result?
There is an uncharged conductor and a point charge. In the paper referenced, ##\bar\phi_y(x)## is defined as the potential at x due to the induced charges on the conductor when the point charge is at y.
As justification for eqn 10 it states that ##\bar\phi_x(y)=\bar\phi_y(x)##.
I cannot see why that should be true, but I cannot construct any counterexample.
Is it evident, or maybe some standard result?