- #106
Mentat
- 3,960
- 3
Forgive the tardiness and necessary brevity of this post, but my access to the internet is not nearly as reliable as I'd like...
No, we are talking about bad definitions. Subjective experience cannot be defined without first appealing to it (just as "creation" cannot be logically defined without implying a "creator"), and so it is a logically useless term (that is, until you can define it in more logically tenable terms).
It's not about my acceptance. It's about the logical problem with looping definitions. It's about the fact that you are asking me to help explain a phenomenon that you can't even define. If you can't define it, how do you even know it exists? Is this not the fundamental aspects of a strawman?
She will have as good an understanding as any of us non-blind people do? What do we really know of color anyway, which we can't explain to Jill? It is only having seen the color that is lacking (an "impression" that she cannot have, as Hume would put it).
While I don't quite understand the analogy, I can say that there is a clear and inescapable problem with all you've said above: It relies on the existence of something that you cannot define.
How can you expect to have a logical conversation about "xxxxxxxxxx yyyyyyyyyy" if you haven't defined it?
What's worse, you then say that the materialists are "skirting around the issue" by "redefining 'experience'", they are the only ones that have given any meaningful definition to that which they are explaining.
What's the difference?
Not good enough, by any stretch of the imagination. First off, you can't have dreamless sleep unless your dead (you just might not remember any of them) - and that is not some irrelevant point, it is an important one since it shows that the processes of the mind are going on all the time, indicating that there is no special process which you keep seeking.
Secondly, when I awaken from dreamless sleep and open my eyes, what changes? I now have interaction between my retinas and the waves of light in the room, which I didn't have before.
Finally, one should not ask one to just "experience for themselves" what one is talking about as a way of escaping the logical necessity for defining all terms.
Yes that is good logic, as arkhron would testify in half a second in former times on old threads. But I don't need to defend quantum mechanics here; the reason "oh, you know what I mean" is not good logic is not because I don't like it or because it doesn't make sense, but because it doesn't make any use of reasoning whatsoever - it simply assumes that I know what you mean in order to side-step the necessity for definition.
What do you mean "what it's like for you to be asleep"? For that matter, what do you mean by "what it is like for you to be awake"? What is it like to be asleep? What is it like to be awake?
Wrong. If something can be defined to the level of semantics, then it has been defined well enough to avoid any logical circle. You cannot even define "subjective experience" in the most rudimentary of ways, but must instead hope that I know a priori what you are talking about.
Originally posted by hypnagogue
Bad analogy. A better one would be "How can you deny that there are buildings, when you see all buildings around you?" Again we are not talking about inferences here, just observation.
No, we are talking about bad definitions. Subjective experience cannot be defined without first appealing to it (just as "creation" cannot be logically defined without implying a "creator"), and so it is a logically useless term (that is, until you can define it in more logically tenable terms).
I have defined it, just from a 1st person perspective. I'm sorry if you cannot accept that.
It's not about my acceptance. It's about the logical problem with looping definitions. It's about the fact that you are asking me to help explain a phenomenon that you can't even define. If you can't define it, how do you even know it exists? Is this not the fundamental aspects of a strawman?
Of course an explanation of a phenomenon does not produce the phenomenon. If I explain what a tree is to someone (Bob) who has never seen one, a tree will not magically appear, but what will happen is that Bob will have a good understanding of what a tree is. If we could explain subjective phenomena (say, color) as well as we could explain objective phenomena (like the tree), then we might expect that I could explain color to a blind person (Jill) well enough that she would have a good understanding of what it is, even though my explanation would not magically enable her to see colors. But this is obviously not the case; no matter how I try, Jill will never have a good understanding of what color is, unless she is someday able to see.
She will have as good an understanding as any of us non-blind people do? What do we really know of color anyway, which we can't explain to Jill? It is only having seen the color that is lacking (an "impression" that she cannot have, as Hume would put it).
Why? A tree is defined at least partially defined extrinsically, that is, in relation to other things. So we can at least explain to Bob a tree's shape (the internal geometric relationships among its parts), its functions (its relationships with sunlight, soil, water, etc.), and so on. However, a subjectively experienced color is defined entirely intrinsically. I do not define my sense of redness with respect to my sense of blueness and vice versa; my sense of redness stands on its own. Because it is not defined extrinsically, there is no conceptual 'hook' that I can latch it onto in order to explain or describe it via its relationships with other things.
This is your primary objection, but it is something we must accept if we are to have a complete picture of reality. If you presented the wave/particle duality to Newton, with no means of supporting it empirically, Newton would reject your views immediately. But Newton would be wrong.
While I don't quite understand the analogy, I can say that there is a clear and inescapable problem with all you've said above: It relies on the existence of something that you cannot define.
How can you expect to have a logical conversation about "xxxxxxxxxx yyyyyyyyyy" if you haven't defined it?
What's worse, you then say that the materialists are "skirting around the issue" by "redefining 'experience'", they are the only ones that have given any meaningful definition to that which they are explaining.
That can explain unconscious processes just fine, but not conscious ones.
What's the difference?
Go into a dreamless sleep. Then wake up and open your eyes. You will see visual images. That's what experience is.
Not good enough, by any stretch of the imagination. First off, you can't have dreamless sleep unless your dead (you just might not remember any of them) - and that is not some irrelevant point, it is an important one since it shows that the processes of the mind are going on all the time, indicating that there is no special process which you keep seeking.
Secondly, when I awaken from dreamless sleep and open my eyes, what changes? I now have interaction between my retinas and the waves of light in the room, which I didn't have before.
Finally, one should not ask one to just "experience for themselves" what one is talking about as a way of escaping the logical necessity for defining all terms.
Neither is P ^ ~P, but we seem to get along with quantum mechanics just fine.
Yes that is good logic, as arkhron would testify in half a second in former times on old threads. But I don't need to defend quantum mechanics here; the reason "oh, you know what I mean" is not good logic is not because I don't like it or because it doesn't make sense, but because it doesn't make any use of reasoning whatsoever - it simply assumes that I know what you mean in order to side-step the necessity for definition.
Yes you do, you are just unfortunately too stubborn to give up a completely objective worldview. Compare what it is like for you to be awake and what it is like for you to be in a dreamless sleep. The zombie would experience the same thing as you do in your dreamless sleep and still appear outwardly like you do when you are awake.
What do you mean "what it's like for you to be asleep"? For that matter, what do you mean by "what it is like for you to be awake"? What is it like to be asleep? What is it like to be awake?
We already established that all definitions must ultimately be circular. The difference is that things defined extrinsically have a much wider 'circle,' so their definitions take on the appearance of not being circular. But in fact anything you can define is just as circular as the definitions I have been using for subjective experience.
Wrong. If something can be defined to the level of semantics, then it has been defined well enough to avoid any logical circle. You cannot even define "subjective experience" in the most rudimentary of ways, but must instead hope that I know a priori what you are talking about.