- #71
vanesch
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jimmysnyder said:u(x, y) = x^2 + y^2
v(x, y) = 0
du/dx = 2x
du/dy = 2y
dv/dx = 0
dv/dy = 0
All partials are continuous at (0, 0), in fact continuous everywhere.
The Cauchy-Reimann conditions hold at (0, 0) and nowhere else. Therefore, the radius of convergence at (0, 0) is zero and the function is not analytic at the point (0, 0).
Yes, that's in the same flavor as my example :-)
In fact, you can even do something further: take a REAL function g(x) with continuous g'(x);
Now, compose the complex function:
f(x,y) = g(x) + i g(y)
(so u(x,y) = g(x) and v(x,y) = + g(y))
Now, du/dx = g'(x), du/dy = 0 ;
dv/dx = 0, dv/dy = g'(y)
Clearly the partials are continuous, and Cauchy-Rieman is satisfied in (x,y) = (0,0) (but not around it, except on the line x=y)
If ever this would imply analyticity, (all derivatives existing), then it would simply mean that the same property holds for the real function g(x): that the existence and continuity of the first derivative of g(x) would imply all derivatives to exist of g(x) (as a real function) ; and/or that the series development of g(x) would exist.
cheers,
Patrick.