- #1
LarryS
Gold Member
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It seems to me that, by definition, QM particles are localized in time.
A “particle” in QM and the act of measuring its particle-like attributes are one and same.
But one cannot predict ahead of time the result of measuring, say, an individual particle’s position (I’m assuming that due to the experimental setup, position measurements are uncertain). So the “particle” has no past. Also, one cannot predict what the wave function will do after it collapses. So the particle has no future. It is localized in time.
Can anyone think of an example in which Time Localization and QM Indeterminacy are not equivalent?
As always, thanks in advance.
A “particle” in QM and the act of measuring its particle-like attributes are one and same.
But one cannot predict ahead of time the result of measuring, say, an individual particle’s position (I’m assuming that due to the experimental setup, position measurements are uncertain). So the “particle” has no past. Also, one cannot predict what the wave function will do after it collapses. So the particle has no future. It is localized in time.
Can anyone think of an example in which Time Localization and QM Indeterminacy are not equivalent?
As always, thanks in advance.