Understanding a question about a finite energy well when E < 0

In summary, the question is asking if there is a specific wavelength (or range of wavelengths) that the particle must have in order to be in a specific energy state.
  • #1
drop_out_kid
34
2
Homework Statement
So I didn't get how professor make wave function to be odd and even and then magically solved them,..
Relevant Equations
None, it's non-analytical.
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So
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,solution only fit for one of them , the other one is not zero , how can that be solution??
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I am pretty new to quantum physics..
 
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  • #2
  • #3
hutchphd said:
This is not easy nor is it simple. But is is useful. NYou might take a look at the 1-D section of

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_potential_well

as a start.Tell us exactly
  1. the question you are trying to answer and
  2. how you intend to answer it.
So, it is trying to solve this eqs
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right, there are two variables , alpha and k, all related to E , so when this stands, there will be a valid E. the question is , the valid E for both of them are not stand together, how can there be "combined solutions"?
 

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  • #4
hutchphd said:
This is not easy nor is it simple. But is is useful. NYou might take a look at the 1-D section of

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_potential_well

as a start.Tell us exactly
  1. the question you are trying to answer and
  2. how you intend to answer it.
Also, may I ask that, if potential V0 > 0 and it's a constant, so when the particle with E > V0 pass this potential barrier, the wave amplitude doesn't change but the wavenumber decrease right(Some energy convert to potential energy?) and where the energy transfer to?
 
  • #5
hutchphd said:
This is not easy nor is it simple. But is is useful. NYou might take a look at the 1-D section of

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_potential_well

as a start.Tell us exactly
  1. the question you are trying to answer and
  2. how you intend to answer it.
1650407066650.png
let me say from this. does the particle in the finite well must have a integer number of wavelengths?
 
  • #6
In one dimension there is always at least one bound state for any finite square well (and it will be the lowest symmetric state) . There may be many more depending upon the depth and width of the well.

You are trying to learn a big chunk of quantum in one bite here!
 

FAQ: Understanding a question about a finite energy well when E < 0

What is a finite energy well?

A finite energy well is a concept in quantum mechanics that describes a potential energy barrier that confines a particle within a certain region. It is often represented by a graph with a potential energy function that has a finite value within a certain range and is infinite outside of that range.

How does a particle behave in a finite energy well when E < 0?

When the particle's energy (E) is less than zero, it is considered to be in a bound state within the finite energy well. This means that the particle is confined within the well and its energy is lower than the potential energy barrier. The particle's behavior is described by the Schrödinger equation, which determines the probability of finding the particle at different positions within the well.

What happens if the particle's energy is greater than the potential energy barrier in a finite energy well?

If the particle's energy is greater than the potential energy barrier, it is considered to be in a free state. This means that the particle is not confined within the well and can move freely outside of it. In this case, the particle's behavior is described by the classical mechanics equations, rather than the Schrödinger equation.

How does the width and depth of a finite energy well affect the behavior of a particle with E < 0?

The width and depth of a finite energy well have a significant impact on the behavior of a particle with E < 0. A wider and deeper well will result in a stronger confinement of the particle, leading to a smaller probability of finding the particle outside of the well. On the other hand, a narrower and shallower well will result in a weaker confinement, allowing the particle to have a higher probability of being found outside of the well.

Can a particle with E < 0 tunnel through a finite energy well?

Yes, a particle with E < 0 can tunnel through a finite energy well. This is a quantum mechanical phenomenon where the particle has a non-zero probability of passing through the potential energy barrier, even though its energy is lower than the barrier. This is not possible in classical mechanics, where a particle must have enough energy to overcome the barrier in order to pass through it.

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