I Understanding a quote about implicit differentiation

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The discussion centers on the derivative of the inverse tangent function, which can be derived using implicit differentiation. The key equation presented is that if y = tan⁻¹(x), then x = tan(y), leading to the expression 1 = (sec²y)(dy/dx) = (1 + tan²y)(dy/dx) = (1 + x²)(dy/dx). The conclusion drawn is that the derivative of tan⁻¹(x) is 1/(1 + x²). The conversation also touches on the challenges of using Leibniz's notation and the importance of clarity in mathematical expressions. Overall, the participants emphasize the validity of the implicit differentiation method for this function.
mcastillo356
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I've got a solved calculation of the inverse tangent function by implicit differentiation I'm trying to understand
Hi PF

A personal translation of a quote from Spanish "Calculus", by Robert A. Adams:
Inverse tangent function derivative can be also obtained by implicit differentiation: if y=tan−1⁡x, then x=tan⁡y, and 1=(sec2⁡y)dydx=(1+tan2⁡y)dydx=(1+x2)dydx Hence, ddxtan−1⁡x=11+x2
It's about advice on Lebniz's notation1=(sec2⁡y)dydx means dxdx=(sec2⁡y)dydx, I'm quite sure. Why (sec2⁡y)dydx=(1+tan2⁡y)dydx? But I'm also quite sure that the right notation for (sec2⁡y)dydx=(1+tan2⁡y)dydx would be (sec2⁡y)ddx=(1+tan2⁡y)ddx
 
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##sec^2y = 1 + tan^2 y## is one of the most important trig identities.
 
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Sorry, I've posted nonsense: I was trying to be clever about Leibniz's notation: impose my personal point of view. I've got troubles posting and editing. My weird opinion was... Well, I will post again, and then my unfounded opinion:

Quote from the book:

The derivative of the inverse tangent function can be calculated also by implicit differentiation: if ##y=\tan^{-1} x##, then ##x=\tan y##, and

$$1=(\sec^2 y)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=(1+\tan^2 y)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=(1+x^2)\dfrac{dy}{dx}$$

Hence

$$\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}$$

My botched job: set notations like ##(\sec^2 y)\dfrac{d}{dx}##

I am not native. Forgive my English.

Greetings!
 
Sorry, I've posted nonsense: I was trying to be clever about Leibniz's notation: impose my personal point of view. I've got troubles posting and editing. My weird opinion was... Well, I will post again, and then my unfounded opinion:

Quote from the book:

The derivative of the inverse tangent function can be calculated also by implicit differentiation: if ##y=\tan^{-1} x##, then ##x=\tan y##, and

$$1=(\sec^2 y)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=(1+\tan^2 y)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=(1+x^2)\dfrac{dy}{dx}$$

Hence

$$\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}$$

My botched job: set notations like ##(\sec^2 y)\dfrac{d}{dx}##

I am not native. Forgive my English.

Greetings!
 
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What's the problem with that? It all looks good to me.
 
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