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The LG inequality is about temporal correlations. Some people (including @A. Neumaier) were arguing in the past that BM does not correctly reproduce the quantum mechanical temporal correlations. But it is wrong. The measurable temporal correlations in QM are the same as measurable temporal correlations in BM. To understand that, one has to take into account what happens with the wave function at the time of measurement. It gets entangled with the wave function of the detector, which is responsible for an effective (apparent) wave function "collapse". More details can be found in the book F. Laloe, "Do We Really Understand Quantum Mechanics?", Appendix I.Lynch101 said:Does the Legget-Garg inequality tell us anything about Bohmian Mechanics, or does it simply not apply?
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