- #1
adnan jahan
- 96
- 0
Dear Fellows I have just came across with the basics of electromagnetism, and about the application of electric and magnetic force on charge particle,
Ohm's law for charge is
j=σE (1)
if the charge is moving with the speed "u"
then, j=σ(E+u[itex]\times[/itex] B) (2)
force on a charge by electric field is
F=q.E (3)
if the charge is moving through the electromagnetic field,
F=q(E+u[itex]\times[/itex]B) (4)
I am supposed to use equation of motion for solid particles i.e.,
σ_ij,j+f_i=ρu'_i (u'=acceleration ' is for time derivative) (5)
my questions are
1- How equation (1) is converted to equation (2) if the particle started moving ??
2- similarly how equation (3) is converted to equation (4)
3- in final form eq (5) if found f_i = lorantz force but in (5) they use f_i =J[itex]\times[/itex]B, why they did not use equation (4) in this situation.
thank you for your cooperation
Ohm's law for charge is
j=σE (1)
if the charge is moving with the speed "u"
then, j=σ(E+u[itex]\times[/itex] B) (2)
force on a charge by electric field is
F=q.E (3)
if the charge is moving through the electromagnetic field,
F=q(E+u[itex]\times[/itex]B) (4)
I am supposed to use equation of motion for solid particles i.e.,
σ_ij,j+f_i=ρu'_i (u'=acceleration ' is for time derivative) (5)
my questions are
1- How equation (1) is converted to equation (2) if the particle started moving ??
2- similarly how equation (3) is converted to equation (4)
3- in final form eq (5) if found f_i = lorantz force but in (5) they use f_i =J[itex]\times[/itex]B, why they did not use equation (4) in this situation.
thank you for your cooperation