Universe mass responsible for inertia?

In summary: I can see how this theory would be falsified if we could measure the gravitational effect at different distances. But what if we could measure the effect at different points in space at the same time? That would be pretty cool.In summary, this theory suggests that inertia is the result of the force from all other masses in the universe on the test mass. If it is true, this would imply that every point in the universe is the center of universe, or else the mass will have a different value depending on where it is in the universe. It would also imply that the strength of the fundamental forces are not a fair comparison. I'm having a difficult understanding what m is after this, since F = ma, but
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Pythagorean
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I've heard it proposed (by peers in the physics halls) that inertia is the result of the force from all other masses in the universe on the test mass. Is this a valid theory? If it is, I would extrapolate with some predicted consequences.addendum:

ok, I have found the name of it: Mach's Principle seems comparable.

If this is true, wouldn't it imply that every point in the universe is the center of universe, or else the mass will have a different value depending on where it is in the universe?

Also, what would it imply about the strength of the fundamental forces? Does it mean we can break inertia down into a summation of forces? Would it mean that the coupling constants of the gravitational and electromagnetic forces aren't a fair comparison? I have difficult understanding what m is after this, since F = ma, but m is the result of forces: F = ma... it seems circular.

I'm having a conceptual brain fart here.
 
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Quote from the Wikipedia http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inertia" article:
... Dennis Sciama later showed that the reaction force produced by the combined gravity of all matter in the universe upon an accelerating object is mathematically equal to the object's inertia [1], but this would only be a workable physical explanation if the gravitational effects operated instantaneously...
 
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dmtr said:
Quote from the Wikipedia http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inertia" article:

... Dennis Sciama later showed that the reaction force produced by the combined gravity of all matter in the universe upon an accelerating object is mathematically equal to the object's inertia [1], but this would only be a workable physical explanation if the gravitational effects operated instantaneously...

I thought we knew the gravitational effect operated near the speed of light. But still, this does have something to it. It can't be mere coincidence that this is the case, can it?

I didn't know there was actually a quantity called inertia, I thought it was a concept. We have inertial mass, but the units aren't equivalent to force, so how do we define the "force" of inertia?
 
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FAQ: Universe mass responsible for inertia?

What is Universe mass responsible for inertia?

The Universe mass is responsible for inertia because it exerts a gravitational force on all objects in the Universe, causing them to resist changes in motion.

How does Universe mass affect inertia?

The greater the Universe mass, the stronger the gravitational force and the greater the inertia of objects in the Universe.

Is Universe mass the only factor contributing to inertia?

No, there are other factors that can also contribute to inertia, such as the size and shape of an object, as well as its velocity and angular momentum.

Can the Universe mass change over time and affect inertia?

Yes, the Universe mass can change over time as matter is continuously being created and destroyed. This can affect the overall inertia of the Universe and objects within it.

How does the concept of Universe mass and inertia relate to the theory of relativity?

According to Einstein's theory of relativity, mass and energy are interchangeable and can affect the curvature of spacetime, which in turn can impact the inertia of objects in the Universe.

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