Very simple relativity questions

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In summary, if one were to travel at 99.99% the speed of light in a rocket car on Earth, time would pass slower for the person in the car compared to everyone else on Earth. However, from the person's perspective, everything would seem normal and time would not appear to be passing quickly. When the person stops and gets out of the car, they would be younger than everyone else due to the effects of relativity. This phenomenon, known as the "twin paradox", can be understood without knowledge of tensors by analyzing the situation from Earth's point of view, as relativity states that all reference frames are valid except for those experiencing acceleration, deceleration, or gravity.
  • #36
Loonwolf said:
Whether they could or couldn't be synchronised in any "frame-independant way" when they are far away is irrelevant - I was specifically asking for the answer in the case when they WERE showing the same time in the beginning.
It is not irrelevant, it is critically important. Your statement that "they WERE showing the same time in the beginning" is meaningless because you aren't saying which reference frame it refers to. When you say that two distant clocks are showing the same time you have to specify the reference frame. It is as simple as that. Your failure to obtain an answer is because your question is incomplete, as you have been told over, and over, and over, ...
 
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  • #37
Loonwolf said:
When they are next to each other which clock is showing the earlier time? Why can I not get the answer to this simple question?
Are you just wanting to understand why two initally syncronyzed clocks read different times after one of them has traveled at higher speeds for some time?
 
  • #38
So now people are saying that it is IMPOSSIBLE that one clock can be showing the same time as another clock which is in a different place? And that ten thousand billion trillion clocks all over the universe would each show a time that wasn't even approximately the same as any other?

There is NO physical procedure whereby the clocks are synchronised in the beginning. They just happen to be showing the same time, BY CHANCE.

I HAVE said which reference frame it refers to, BOTH.

OK, it's a case where we choose to use a coordinate system where the clocks are synchronized at the beginning. So nobody will now object to the question and will answer it?

I'm just wanting the simple answer to the question I have asked, when the two clocks are next to each other, which shows the earlier time?
 
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  • #39
Loonwolf said:
So now people are saying that it is IMPOSSIBLE that one clock can be showing the same time as another clock which is in a different place?
Nobody said that, we simply said (repeatedly) that you have to specify the reference frame.

Loonwolf said:
I HAVE said which reference frame it refers to, BOTH.
That is not possible. It is against the relativity of simultaneity. You have to pick one or the other or some third reference frame. It is not possible that it is simultaneous in more than one reference frame.

Loonwolf said:
OK, it's a case where we choose to use a coordinate system where the clocks are synchronized at the beginning. So nobody will now object to the question and will answer it?

I'm just wanting the simple answer to the question I have asked, when the two clocks are next to each other, which shows the earlier time?
The one that was traveling faster in that "coordinate system where the clocks are synchronized at the beginning" will show the earlier time.
 
  • #40
Loonwolf said:
So now people are saying that it is IMPOSSIBLE that one clock can be showing the same time as another clock which is in a different place? And that ten thousand billion trillion clocks all over the universe would each show a time that wasn't even approximately the same as any other?

There is NO physical procedure whereby the clocks are synchronised in the beginning. They just happen to be showing the same time, BY CHANCE.
You are either still misunderstanding or are willfully misrepresenting my point. You are talking as though there is some definite objective truth about whether two clocks are synchronized, and that I'm just saying that it's very hard to make it so they are synchronized at the beginning, that it can only happen by coincidence or something. But that's not it at all! What I'm saying is that the word "synchronized" itself has no objective frame-independent meaning, therefore it is impossible to have a situation where the clocks will be objectively synchronized at the beginning, not even by coincidence. If you just want the clocks to be synchronized in a non-objective way, relative to the coordinates of one particular frame, then it's very easy to come up with a procedure to ensure that!

If you are arguing in good faith and not willfully misrepresenting me, can you please address my analogy of the clocks "having the same x-coordinate at the beginning"? Specifically, please address these questions:

1. Do you agree that for any given pair of clocks at rest with respect to one another, we can find some coordinate system in which both clocks are at rest where the x-axis is oriented in such a way that both clocks have the same x-coordinate, and another coordinate system where both clocks are also at rest but with the x-axis at a different angle, such that the same two clocks have a different x-coordinate? Yes/No

2. If you agree with #1, then do you agree that means that it's impossible for two clocks to objectively have the same x-coordinate at the beginning, in a sense that doesn't depend on what coordinate system you use? That the very notion of "having the same x-coordinate at the beginning" can only make sense relative to a particular choice of coordinate system? Yes/No
Loonwolf said:
I HAVE said which reference frame it refers to, BOTH.
Impossible. If the two clocks are moving inertially towards one another, and the clocks are synchronized at the beginning in one clock's rest frame, that automatically means they were not synchronized at the beginning in the other clock's rest frame.
Loonwolf said:
OK, it's a case where we choose to use a coordinate system where the clocks are synchronized at the beginning. So nobody will now object to the question and will answer it?
Yes, in this case the question is perfectly sensible. If the two clocks are moving inertially towards each other, and they are initially synchronized relative to a particular choice of inertial coordinate system, then whichever clock has a higher velocity relative to that coordinate system will show a smaller time when the two clocks meet.
 
  • #41
JesseM, what do you mean by "objective" and "objectively"? It seems to me you use the term as a pure synonim of "non-frame-dependent". If so, please confirm, I think it might help Loonwolf to understand the point.
 
  • #42
Saw said:
JesseM, what do you mean by "objective" and "objectively"? It seems to me you use the term as a pure synonim of "non-frame-dependent". If so, please confirm, I think it might help Loonwolf to understand the point.
Yes, that's basically all I mean, but if I just said "frame-independent" Loonwolf might get the idea that there was a real truth about the matter and that some frames were "wrong" while others were "right". I wanted to get across the idea that not only is simultaneity completely dependent on your choice of frame, but that there is also no physical basis for judging one frame's judgments about simultaneity to be more correct than any other's, since the laws of physics don't pick out a preferred frame.
 
  • #43
JesseM said:
Yes, that's basically all I mean, but if I just said "frame-independent" Loonwolf might get the idea that there was a real truth about the matter and that some frames were "wrong" while others were "right". I wanted to get across the idea that not only is simultaneity completely dependent on your choice of frame, but that there is also no physical basis for judging one frame's judgments about simultaneity to be more correct than any other's, since the laws of physics don't pick out a preferred frame.

Yes, you are saying that the two judgments about simultaneity are not only different (frame-dependent) but on equal footing = none is more correct. Agreed. I am not sure, though, that you should then say that none of them is objective, i.e. that what they share (equal footing) is their lack of objectivity. After all, each judgment is obtained through an objective measurement method: the Einstein convention for clock synchronization. In fact, some authors like to state the opposite, i.e. that the two judgments share (equal footing) their objectivity = they are not the result of a distorted perception due to the features of the observing subject.

In any case, whether you call them objective or not, what is important to highlight, in my opinion, is that simultaneity judgments are not final but "instrumental": they solve problems and they solve them in the same manner in all frames. So the mere fact that two observers disagree on simultaneity is not dramatic (it's not paradoxical); it would be problematic if that led to a disagreement on what happens and what does not, but such is not the case.
 
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