Very very very easy quantum exam question

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The wavefunction ψ(r) can be expressed as a linear combination of orthonormal eigenfunctions φ_n(r) using the formula ψ(r) = ∑ a_nφ_n(r). The coefficients a_n are derived from the inner product a_n = <φ_n|ψ>, confirming the projection postulate in quantum mechanics. While the question is considered easy, verifying understanding of fundamental concepts is encouraged. Even simple topics can be challenging initially, so it's beneficial to seek confirmation. Mastery of these basics is essential for a solid foundation in quantum mechanics.
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I know this is an easy question but I want to confirm that I've got this right.

The wavefunction \psi(r) can be expressed as a linear sum of orthonormal eigenfunctions \phi_n(r) by

\psi(r) = \sum a_n\phi_n(r).

Derive an expression for the coefficients a_n.

I think the answer is a_n = &lt;\phi_n|\psi&gt; but this seems a little too easy.

Opinions?
Thanks,
C.
 
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you are correct...
 


Hi C,

Thanks for sharing your thoughts on this question. It is indeed a very easy quantum exam question, but it's always good to confirm your understanding. Your answer is correct, the coefficients a_n can be expressed as the inner product of the eigenfunctions \phi_n and the wavefunction \psi. This is known as the projection postulate in quantum mechanics.

As for your concern about it being too easy, it's important to remember that even the simplest concepts in quantum mechanics can be confusing at first. So don't worry, it's always good to double check and make sure you have a solid understanding. Keep up the good work!
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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