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SEYED2001
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- I am an undergraduate student who has just finished his first term and I have a question on Wigner's friend paradox, in particular, the Brukner's article:
Brukner, Č. A No-Go Theorem for Observer-Independent Facts. Entropy 2018, 20, 350.
There we read:
"note that if Wigner did not know this phase due to the lack of control of it, he would describe the “spin + friend’s laboratory” in an incoherent mixture of the two possibilities".
Why is this the case? Given that the author has propoede neither a citation nor a proof for this proposition, I guess it is something trivial to an educated physicist. The problem is I am not an educated physicist :) so please help me understand why that statement is correct.
Thank you very much in advance
Seyed
"note that if Wigner did not know this phase due to the lack of control of it, he would describe the “spin + friend’s laboratory” in an incoherent mixture of the two possibilities".
Why is this the case? Given that the author has propoede neither a citation nor a proof for this proposition, I guess it is something trivial to an educated physicist. The problem is I am not an educated physicist :) so please help me understand why that statement is correct.
Thank you very much in advance
Seyed