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Dario56
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It's mentioned that the normal mode of molecule needs to involve the change in molecular polarizability to be Raman active.
Explanation is provided in Physical Chemistry textbook by Atkins on the example of the rotational Raman spectra. Only the frequency of the electric field ##(f_i)## occurs in the induced dipole formula if the polarizability is isotropic. If it's anisotropic, two additional frequenices occur ##(f_i + 2f_R)## and ##(f_i - 2f_R)## corresponding to Raman shift (Stokes and anti-Stokes lines), where ##f_R## is rotational frequency of the molecule. This explanation is clear, but it's quite math based without much intution.
Can you give more intuitive explanation of the relation between anisotropic polarizability and Raman activity?
Explanation is provided in Physical Chemistry textbook by Atkins on the example of the rotational Raman spectra. Only the frequency of the electric field ##(f_i)## occurs in the induced dipole formula if the polarizability is isotropic. If it's anisotropic, two additional frequenices occur ##(f_i + 2f_R)## and ##(f_i - 2f_R)## corresponding to Raman shift (Stokes and anti-Stokes lines), where ##f_R## is rotational frequency of the molecule. This explanation is clear, but it's quite math based without much intution.
Can you give more intuitive explanation of the relation between anisotropic polarizability and Raman activity?