Why eigenvalues of L_x^2 and L_z^2 identical?

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The eigenvalues of the L_x^2 and L_z^2 matrices for l=1 are both 0 and ħ^2, indicating that they are identical. The discussion highlights the confusion surrounding why these eigenvalues are the same despite the operators corresponding to different spatial directions. It is noted that while the eigenvalues are identical, a particle in an eigenstate of L_z is not necessarily in an eigenstate of L_x, emphasizing the distinction between eigenvalues and eigenstates. The underlying reason for the identical eigenvalues is attributed to the isotropic nature of angular momentum in quantum mechanics. Ultimately, the equivalence of eigenvalues reflects the symmetry in the physical system rather than the specific states of the particle.
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Homework Statement



Calculate the eigenvalues of the L_x^2 matrix.
Calculate the eigenvalues of the L_z^2 matrix.
Compare these and comment on the result.

Homework Equations



L_x=\frac{1}{2}(L_+ + L_- )

The Attempt at a Solution



I have derived eigenvalues for each: 0 and \hbar^2 for both L_x^2 and L_z^2. But why are they identical? I'm finding it difficult in qualitatively explaining why the eigenvalues are the same for both.
 
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Because the God of Physics does not care which direction you call the x-direction and which direction you call the z-direction.
 
Sorry I forgot to mention this is for l=1.

Okay, but I used L_z eigenvalues of m\hbar, where m=-1,0,1 in this case, and used L_x=\frac{1}{2}(L_+ + L_- ). I have called the z component the one in which is certain, so how can the x component squared in this case have the same eigenvalues as the z component squared?
 
The operators will have the same eigenvalues for the reason Oxvillian said, but that's not saying anything about the state a particle is in. If a particle is in an eigenstate of ##\hat{L}_z##, it's not in an eigenstate of ##\hat{L}_x##.
 
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