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alexandrinushka
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- I get that the math is the same for LET (Lorentz Ether Theory) and for traditional SR (Special Relativity). Yet the explanations behind the phenomena aren't, are they? Why high precision lasers cannot rule out LET?
I am reading pretty much everywhere that LET (Lorentz Ether Theory, or call it Neo-Lorentzian Relativity, or whatever theory that involves a preferred undetectable frame with some yet unknown properties that make all the moving objects with respect to this frame length contact and time dilate) and SR are equivalent and that there is no test that can falsify one and not the other.
Although I understand that the math involved is the same, it just seems difficult for me to understand why on an intuitive level.
Here is an example.
We set a high-precision laser with a narrow range. That is to ensure light does not spread all over the place and thus one cannot claim its wavefront has reached everything around.
Several dozens (hundreds?) of meters away we set a large photosensitive paper with a point. The imaginary thread between this target point and the laser opening would be 90° perpendicular to the paper.
Now we fire the laser.
Obviously the laser will hit the paper in that exact perpendicular point. No need for an external observer, the paper would be damaged at the target point.
Two conclusions are possible.
1. SR is right and all inertial frames are equivalent.
2. LET is right and we are by pure coincidence in this special absolute reference frame. But then repeating the experiment several times during the year or even assuming we are not in the preferred frame, but moving at the speed of 368km/s compared to CMB or whatever other hypothetical absolute frame, would quickly rule out this second scenario.
Therefore only the first option is viable and retained. Any movement of the lab setup compared to this absolute frame would necessarily have the laser miss the target point and land somewhere around it, no?
What is wrong with my argument?
This experiment seems so "easy" that I assume I must be missing something essential. I cannot be the first one to have "figured out" such an easy way to rule out LET :D
Thank you in advance for your constructive and instructive support.
Please keep answers at high-school or lower undergrad level.
Although I understand that the math involved is the same, it just seems difficult for me to understand why on an intuitive level.
Here is an example.
We set a high-precision laser with a narrow range. That is to ensure light does not spread all over the place and thus one cannot claim its wavefront has reached everything around.
Several dozens (hundreds?) of meters away we set a large photosensitive paper with a point. The imaginary thread between this target point and the laser opening would be 90° perpendicular to the paper.
Now we fire the laser.
Obviously the laser will hit the paper in that exact perpendicular point. No need for an external observer, the paper would be damaged at the target point.
Two conclusions are possible.
1. SR is right and all inertial frames are equivalent.
2. LET is right and we are by pure coincidence in this special absolute reference frame. But then repeating the experiment several times during the year or even assuming we are not in the preferred frame, but moving at the speed of 368km/s compared to CMB or whatever other hypothetical absolute frame, would quickly rule out this second scenario.
Therefore only the first option is viable and retained. Any movement of the lab setup compared to this absolute frame would necessarily have the laser miss the target point and land somewhere around it, no?
What is wrong with my argument?
This experiment seems so "easy" that I assume I must be missing something essential. I cannot be the first one to have "figured out" such an easy way to rule out LET :D
Thank you in advance for your constructive and instructive support.
Please keep answers at high-school or lower undergrad level.
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