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Dr turtle
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- TL;DR Summary
- Why Landau pointed out that Lagrange function shall only be affected by v square in inertial reference system?
Why he said that beacause space's propertiy is the same in both direction, so L=L(v^2), or do I misunderstand him incorrectly?
btw this conclusion appears in somewhere like page 5 and its about Galilean principle of relativity.
btw this conclusion appears in somewhere like page 5 and its about Galilean principle of relativity.