Why QFT still goes well while it lacks the notion of wave function?

In summary: I'm not sure what you mean by "wave function". Third, the notion of "wave function" as it is used in non-relativistic QM becomes frame-dependent in QFT. What this means is that the meaning of the wave function depends on the frame of reference in which it is measured.
  • #71
But all this is known for decades, and the standard solution is to use local realizations of the Poicare group in termx of field operators encoding both particles and antiparticles (Feynman-Stückelberg trick) leading to a Lorentz-covariant S-matrix.
 
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  • #72
vanhees71 said:
But all this is known for decades, and the standard solution is to use local realizations of the Poicare group in termx of field operators encoding both particles and antiparticles (Feynman-Stückelberg trick) leading to a Lorentz-covariant S-matrix.
Sure, that's good old perturbative RQFT, but I don't think pavsic and Peterdonis are discussing about that.
 
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