- #1
Sajet
- 48
- 0
Hi! I was just going through this script on Lie groups: http://www.mit.edu/~ssam/repthy.pdf
At one point the following is said:
(see attachment)
I've spent multiple hours trying to figure out why this is a group homomorphism. Sure, once you know the theorem is correct, this follows. But without knowing this, I can't figure out why it should be.
I want to see that:
[itex]\varphi_y(x_1x_2) = \varphi_y(x_1)\varphi_y(x_2) \Leftrightarrow x_1x_2yx_2^{-1}x_1^{-1}y^{-1} = x_1yx_1^{-1}y^{-1}x_2yx_2^{-1}y^{-1}[/itex]
If I write [itex]x_1y = \bar y_1x_1, x_2y = \bar y_2x_2[/itex], then the above equation is equivalent to
[itex]x_1\bar y_2x_1^{-1} = \bar y_1y^{-1}\bar y_2[/itex]
but I don't get any further from here.
At one point the following is said:
(see attachment)
I've spent multiple hours trying to figure out why this is a group homomorphism. Sure, once you know the theorem is correct, this follows. But without knowing this, I can't figure out why it should be.
I want to see that:
[itex]\varphi_y(x_1x_2) = \varphi_y(x_1)\varphi_y(x_2) \Leftrightarrow x_1x_2yx_2^{-1}x_1^{-1}y^{-1} = x_1yx_1^{-1}y^{-1}x_2yx_2^{-1}y^{-1}[/itex]
If I write [itex]x_1y = \bar y_1x_1, x_2y = \bar y_2x_2[/itex], then the above equation is equivalent to
[itex]x_1\bar y_2x_1^{-1} = \bar y_1y^{-1}\bar y_2[/itex]
but I don't get any further from here.